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Re: cadence [pedaller] [ In reply to ]
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Mr. Pedaller.

I haven't studied your answer in detail (it is getting late and I am going to bed) but I believe I see one quick flaw. Your solution seemingly only works for one specific condition. A bike and rider of a specific mass with a specific thigh and mass and configuration with specific crank length going a specific speed with a specific gearing so you can make the bike energy variation exactly equal the thigh energy variation. Unfortunately, the MMF model doesn't work that way. There are supposedly no pedaling losses regardless of the mass or relative configuration of any of the components. In your solution, change the mass or the gearing or almost anything else and your solution no longer works, at least as I read your solution. Any solution needs to work for the generic MMF under all conditions or the MMF model, as presented here, fails.

I will try to read it a little more carefully tomorrow but if it doesn't solve the problem I am not going to waste much time on it. I am only interested seeing if someone can come up with a solution to the MMF problem, which I believe does not exist.

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Frank,
An original Ironman and the Inventor of PowerCranks
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Re: cadence [pedaller] [ In reply to ]
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Frank,

You wrote, "If the mass of the rider/bike is 70 kg wouldn't we expect to see a speed variation of 28/70 m/s in the bicycle to account for the decrease in energy as the thighs move from max to minimum speed (1/4 of a second at a cadence of 60)."

First, assuming that the effective mass of the thighs is 28kg and the effective rate is 1 m/s (not too realistic, since the thighs are supported on the hip end), and making a bunch of simplifying assumptions, the rate ratio is way off. If you start at 1 m/s and 70 kg, Ek = 0.5mv^2 = 35J. The thighs will attain kinetic energy of (0.5)(28)(1^2) = 14 J. The theory is that this would be drawn off of the kinetic energy of the bike. So there will only be 35 - 14 = 21J of Ek. Since this is 0.5mv^2, we expect v^2 to be 21/(0.5m) = 21/35 = 0.6. So v = sqrt(0.6) = 0.775 m/s.

Alternatively, if you start with Ek at 35J when the legs are at 9:00 and 3:00, Ek will go up, and 0.5mv^2=49, v = sqrt(49/35) = 1.18 m/s.

So whereas you posit a change of 40%, you should have said 18-22%. In reality, the effective speed of the thighs is much less, the bike speed is much more (the gearing is much taller). If you found a thunderthighs whose mass together with his bike was 70 kg, and put him on a fixie with a 20 tooth chainwheel and a 40 tooth cog on the back (you could almost climb walls with that granny gearing) and tell him to ride around at 3.6 km/h, then for sure the variation in speed would be noticeable. If you can supply a 60 kg guy with thighs that achieve 14J of kinetic energy, and this wonky bike gearing, then yeah, let's put him on the track. You'll see it happen.
Well, here is a scenario that anyone can do (at least if they have a fixie). Put your bike on the trainer in such a way that there is no resistance applied to the tire. This way there is no forward motion of the bike to worry about in the problem, the only resistance to movement is the inertia of the rear wheel. This pretty much reduces the inertia of the bike to be less than the inertia of the thighs. The total energy of the system will equal the energy of the thighs plus the energy in the rotating wheel. Calculate what kind of speed change need occur under these circumstances to keep the energy of the system constant (I think you will find it to be substantial) and then get on the bike and ride it and see if it happens. If it doesn't happen it is only because the energy, rather than being transferred back and forth between the thighs and wheel is being lost as heat. This is probably because the forces slowing the thigh are not tangential to the circle. The energy can be completely transferred to the other elements of the bike only if the forces are tangential to the pedaling circle. (this is discussed more below) There is nothing to ensure this is the case. In fact, there is nothing to even suggest this is the case.
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Even changing one of these parameters -- speed -- makes a huge difference. If v = 10 m/s, then Ek = 3500J. Then the new Ek would be 3500 +/- 14, and the new v would be sqrt( (3500+/-14)/35 ) = 9.98 to 10.02 m/s. So increase the speed 10x to realistic speeds, and the speed variation decreases from 20% to 0.2% of the starting speed, ie, by a factor 100. And we can go to the track and [fail to] observe such invisible changes in speed too, if you want, even if you find your 60kg thunderthigh guy to ride the bike.

The issue of tracking the energy (re-proving the law of Newton and of thermodynamics, as Tom A says -- which we shouldn't have to do) is made somewhat complex if the entire system is looked at simultaneously. But let's break it down. For a given point in time, let us call the force exerted on the pedal spindle by the foot F (a vector). The spindle moves along the tangent (circumference) of the crank circle. Let us call the differential motion vector dC, corresponding to the motion covered in a time interval dt. The work done by the foot is the dot product of these two vectors: dE = F dot dC, which I'm going to write as F.dC for brevity.
Well, you have put the problem in a nutshell right there. The work done (energy transferred) is the dot product. Unless the force is tangential the energy cannot be completely transferred. Therefore, either the energy of the system must vary (violating the laws of thermodynamic) or energy must be lost as heat. For you to prove your point you must be able to prove that these naturally applied forces are always tangential to the circle. Good luck.
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Regardless of whether this pedal force is due to gravity, muscular force, inertia or whatever, it does not matter. Assuming an efficient drivetrain, this will translate into kinetic energy. If we write E = 0.5mv^2 in differential form, it is dE = m*v*dv, or dv = dE/mv. (Note that the change in velocity for a small change in energy decreases with increasing velocity. This is why at higher speeds the speeding/slowing effect is much less, and at lower speeds it is quite perceptible.) So the expected change in rate is dv = dE/mv = F.dC/mv. It is trivial to extend this to angular energy as well, so we will ignore that aspect for the sake of simplicity.

Now, looking at the vectors F and dC as defined, one can see that just as the foot exerts F on the pedal spindle, so the spindle exerts -F on the foot. The work done by the spindle on the foot is -F.dC. Interesting: precisely the energy added to the bike+mass system is the energy lost by the leg system, and this applies also in the case of negative energy (if the force opposes the direction of motion): the energy obtained from the bike+mass system is the energy gained by the leg system.
No. the work done is not equal. If we assume a massless lower leg and foot, the force retarding the thigh has to be in the direction of the lower leg (you make this point below but note that this direction is never tangential to the pedaling circle except perhaps briefly at around 3 o'clock on the downstroke). The work done is the integral of the force through the distance. However, as you put it, the work done into the bike is the dot product. These simply cannot be the same. Therefore, energy must be lost.
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That is how the energy is conserved, and it is pretty much irrefutable. (It does, after all, agree with the fundamental laws Tom A has been citing.)
Well, I would say it isn't pretty much irrefutable. See above.
In Reply To:

Now in the case of a massless calf+foot and a frozen ankle joint, the force F will always be colinear with the line from the knee joint to the pedal spindle. One can then perform the same sort of analysis on the knee joint to show that the thigh will see a change in energy of dE. Thus if thigh kinetic energy Ek is 0.5Jw^2 (pretend w is omega) -- from which dw = dE/Jw -- then dw = -F.dC/Jw.
The dot product of the forces at the knee (the only forces that do any work are those tangential to the circle drawn by the knee movement) also reduce the amount of work transmitted (or increase the amount of energy lost).
In Reply To:

We can take this further. We can have the force deviate from the line of knee to pedal spindle, by means of mass in the feet and calves, and by means of a torque on the calf (quads or hams working). And we can add gravity overall. The basic relationships still hold, and the analysis can be chased up limb by limb to show that no energy is lost or gained. But I think you would rather deal with a particular objection than go into all that.
The MMF model allows no muscle force to be added to adjust the forces. Gravity is accounted for in the potential energy and the forces are close to equal and opposite on the two pedals so can be discounted although gravity gives forces that make it hard to understand what is really going on unless one subtracts them. The MMF model is best described in a zero gravity condition as there are fewer confounding factors.
In Reply To:

So now to the problem (in your mind), namely that these changes in rate are mechanically linked to each other. I have suggested you work the differentials in Excel. I have also simplified the problem to the 'lump of weight on one pedal problem' to help you see that your interpretation of the physical processes is incorrect. You have taken me up on neither analysis, and have instead insisted that others are missing something, without having done the real work to prove it yourself. I now pitch to you the third ball. It's up to you to swing. If you let this one go by, right through the strike zone... well, you know the saying about three strikes.
Thanks to your analysis I can see that the real problem is not the linking between the cranks and the bike but the dot products of the various forces/direction of motion. The issue is still the same. It is simply not possible for the MMF to conserve energy. Thanks for helping me to clarify in my mind exactly why. Perhaps this will become clearer to you all now.
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You are concerned that this is a fixie, ie, that is, the magnitude of dC must be proportional to v*dt. So w (speed of thigh) is some function of v (speed of bike). Since the kinetic energy of the bike+rider varies as v^2, and the thigh motion does not vary as v^2, then how can the sum of the energies possibly remain constant?

The first part of the answer is to simplify the question. Since we are talking about flow of energy (delta energy), the differential form is much more appropriate for analysis. Instead of looking at v and w, we should be looking at dv and dw. The analysis at the start of this post does essentially that, and gives a numerical basis for showing how the energy can balance without causing a problem. In explicit differential form, though, it can be phrased this way: the linear dE of the bike+rider and the angular dE of the thigh must be equal in magnitude, so J*w*dw = m*v*dv. I don't see any problem with maintaining that over time. If we look at rate of change of angular and linear velocity, dv/dt = (Jw/mv)*dw/dt. This means that the bike velocity will change in some proportion to the change in thigh velocity, and that proportion will always be in the ratio of the scalar momentums of the two.
See above. I have revised my explanation as to why this is impossible thanks to you.
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Now your question will be, why isn't it something to do with the gear ratio? My answer is that it does depend on the gear ratio. If you double the gear ratio, the velocity of the bike would be doubled also for the same thigh angular velocity. This means that the ratio of the momentums will halve. Or, to use the example with numbers up above, if the gear ratio is increased tenfold, the ratio of the momentums will change by a factor of ten, and the change in bike velocity will become 1/10 what it was before the gear ratio change; that is, the ratio of dv to dw will change to 1/10 what it was, precisely reflecting the gearing change.
See above. It has nothing to do with the gear ratio. It has to do with the direction of the forces. I had alluded to that before but I see now it is the only explanation. Having perfectly rigid elements cannot overcome this problem.
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Now, depending on the physical layout, there might be any weird number of relationships describing dw/dt and dv/dt, so I am going to simplify the proof by dealing with the subject inductively. Assume a correct gear ratio for storing the energy from the bike in the thighs and back again from the thighs in the bike. If the energy 'balance' (transfer of equal quantities out of one part of the system and into the other, as kinetic energy storage) can be attained for this gear ratio, it can be attained for all gear ratios, by using the reasoning of the previous paragraph. Therefore either the energy balance always holds true, regardless of gear ratio, or it never holds true, regardless of gear ratio. Now, if the energy balance did not hold, it could be used to make a perpetual motion machine that performs work for free and violates the laws of thermodynamics. That is, if the relationship were such that the ratio of momentums were greater than that expected by the gear ratio, more energy would appear in the linear
kinetic energy of the bike than was put into it. If the relationship were such that the ratio of momentums were less than that expected by the gear ratio, the wheels could be used to drive the pedals, and more angular kinetic energy would appear in the thighs than was put into the system via the wheels. Since the patent office doesn't approve of either of these scenarios, the only option left is the one in which there is a perfect energy balance, and, as previously stated, this holds for all gear ratios, and holds for all speeds within any given gear ratio.
Not if the dot-products do not transmit all the energy. Again, thanks for that.
In Reply To:

I don't think it is conceptually difficult to see that this whole line of argumentation can be extended to the more general case of multiple reciprocating masses, gravity effects, and muscular inputs.

So the bottom line is that is it you that has been peddling a work-for-free perpetual motion machine, not the rest of us.
Of course, this can be extended to any mechanical system. Conservation of energy works as long as all the energy is transferred. However, how much is transferred depends upon the dot product. Again, thanks for that clarification.
In Reply To:

(I had intended to send this earlier, but had yet to finish it when some engagements interfered. In the meantime some new posts have come in that make some of the same points as were made near the top, but to avoid the work of re-writing, I'm leaving it. Apologies to the others for the duplication of your points.)
Has the revision of my position helped you to better understand my position? The MMF cannot possibly be a perpetual motion machine because it is not possible to transfer all the energy back and forth between the different elements. This is not because of the gearing but because of the direction of the natural forces. Unless you can show the dot product of all the energy transmission forces are always maximal I will continue to hold this position. Perhaps you can now understand why the speed variations we should be seeing if energy were conserved are never seen.

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Frank,
An original Ironman and the Inventor of PowerCranks
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Re: cadence [Frank Day] [ In reply to ]
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You know, it would be quite "easy" to run an experiment to find out what really happens with the MMF. One need to simply modify an exercise bike to replace one crank with an electric motor and to build a "stick man" to reproduce the elements of the hip and leg. One can drive the machine at different cadences with the stick man disconnected to see what the frictional losses of the set up are (all one need do is measure the current necessary to drive the system to measure the energy/power) then connect the stickman and repeat the measurements. One could add weight to the "thigh" or "lower leg" to see what affect these different masses have as well as change crank length and do all this at different cadences. One could also add a flywheel to the system to see if "loading" the system results in any change as some have asserted here.

If, in fact, energy is conserved there should be no difference in the amperage required to drive the system (beyond some small additional "joint" friction losses) regardless of how the masses of the elements change or the cadence the system is at. If there are losses it will be easy to document how large they are and how they are affected by different configurations and rider type. Then, these arguments could stop. Obviously no one has done this work yet or it would have been referenced already. Until this work is done I suspect this disagreement will continue.

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Frank,
An original Ironman and the Inventor of PowerCranks
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Re: cadence [Frank Day] [ In reply to ]
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In Reply To:

Look, if this is so simple all you need do is show that the energy of the MMF model remains constant under all mass, speed, and gearing conditions. As of yet, no one has come up with a single condition in which this requirement is met. Until then, as far as I am concerned, you can stop with the name calling and accept the fact you can't prove your assertion. Accept the fact there are energy losses from the pedaling motion. The only real issue is how large are they.

Umm...what name calling?

And I repeat...when you can show me where energy is removed from the system if there's no friction and rigid links, or accept that there ISN'T any other mechanism, THEN I'll lay out the math. Until you come to understand the first law of thermodynamics and Newton's first law of motion, it's pointless to go further.

http://bikeblather.blogspot.com/
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Re: cadence [Tom A.] [ In reply to ]
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In Reply To:
In Reply To:

Look, if this is so simple all you need do is show that the energy of the MMF model remains constant under all mass, speed, and gearing conditions. As of yet, no one has come up with a single condition in which this requirement is met. Until then, as far as I am concerned, you can stop with the name calling and accept the fact you can't prove your assertion. Accept the fact there are energy losses from the pedaling motion. The only real issue is how large are they.

Umm...what name calling?

And I repeat...when you can show me where energy is removed from the system if there's no friction and rigid links, or accept that there ISN'T any other mechanism, THEN I'll lay out the math. Until you come to understand the first law of thermodynamics and Newton's first law of motion, it's pointless to go further.
Energy is removed from the system because of the vector multiplication. The totality of the energy lost from one component cannot be transferred to the next component unless the forces are both directed in the direction of motion. The system simply cannot work with rigid components because the forces are not tangential. Luckily for us rigid components are only theoretical construct to "simplify" analysis, so if someone were to actually build such a device it would appear to work as one thinks it should and they could blame any slowing on friction, but in this case it seems that using rigid components does not simplify the analysis but makes it more confusing. Everyone (including Papadapolous - remember him (see below)) agrees that energy must be lost when the rider is pedaling unloaded or lightly loaded, rigid system or not. Absolutely nothing is changed regarding the pedaling motion just because a load is added other than the rider must now start using muscles to compensate for the load but the simple pedaling motion losses will remain. Papadapalous says: "there is no obvious inefficiency" when you add the chain. That does not mean there is no inefficiency. If someone were to build the model and run the study I suggested one would be forced to explain the losses that would be observed and this nonsense that the inefficiency goes away when a load is added would soon be forgotten.


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Frank,
An original Ironman and the Inventor of PowerCranks
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Re: cadence [Frank Day] [ In reply to ]
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Frank Day:
My friend, those numbers do not demonstrate to me that it is an energy conserving system. Just tell me what your calculations tell you is the total energy of the system at max V and at minimum V. I simply don't believe they are the same. Oh, and the MMF problem is not quite the same as the piston problem you linked to since there is no translation of a separate mass into a longitudinal speed (edit: and the "piston" is offset). That is the problem we are trying to solve.
[/quote] Frank,
I had forgotten about the book quoted by Tom A. in a previous post, which states:
  • It is widely supposed that muscular force in pedaling should ideally be oriented along the pedal path (i.e., perpendicular to the crank); otherwise some amount of force will be "wasted'. ... This supposition is generally invalid: the example of a piston engine shows that there is nothing inefficient about exerting a force along the connecting rod.
The similarity between piston engine and MMF is: the piston represents the thigh, the rod represents the lower leg; in both you have one of the parts moving up and down in a roughly sinusoidal way.

Giovanni Ciriani
http://www.GlobusSHT.com
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Re: cadence [gciriani] [ In reply to ]
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Frank Day:
My friend, those numbers do not demonstrate to me that it is an energy conserving system. Just tell me what your calculations tell you is the total energy of the system at max V and at minimum V. I simply don't believe they are the same. Oh, and the MMF problem is not quite the same as the piston problem you linked to since there is no translation of a separate mass into a longitudinal speed (edit: and the "piston" is offset). That is the problem we are trying to solve.
[/quote] Frank,
I had forgotten about the book quoted by Tom A. in a previous post, which states:
  • It is widely supposed that muscular force in pedaling should ideally be oriented along the pedal path (i.e., perpendicular to the crank); otherwise some amount of force will be "wasted'. ... This supposition is generally invalid: the example of a piston engine shows that there is nothing inefficient about exerting a force along the connecting rod.
The similarity between piston engine and MMF is: the piston represents the thigh, the rod represents the lower leg; in both you have one of the parts moving up and down in a roughly sinusoidal way.
Aside from the piston being fixed and the "piston rod" being a two part rod to accommodate the rotating crankshaft, there is another substantial difference between the piston system and the crank system. The piston system is being driven by a compressed gas. Therefore, there is no energy cost (assuming no gas leakage going around the seals) when there is no movement. Further, the amount of piston movement is related to the crankshaft angle. It makes no difference if the "crankshaft forces" are not entirely tangential in that system because it cannot affect the efficiency or the transfer of energy.

Whereas in the biological (muscle driven) system there is a cost to having a generated force without movement. Isometric contraction is not free so non-tangential forces affect efficiency.

Edit: also, is anyone saying that a friction free piston arrangement would go on "forever" once set in motion. If there are energy losses from rotation in that system, why can't we agree that they must be present in the more complicated MMF model?

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Frank,
An original Ironman and the Inventor of PowerCranks
Last edited by: Frank Day: Oct 25, 09 20:06
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Re: cadence [Frank Day] [ In reply to ]
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Let me pose a few more questions for the skeptics. Let's look at the simple piston/crankshaft problem. Let's pretend it also is a frictionless system with rigid components. Nobody here would deny, I think, that when rotating there is a substantial energy variation in the total system. The crank shaft rotates at pretty much a constant velocity (perhaps increasing and decreasing to account for the increase and decrease of the potential energy of the piston as it moves up and down) but the KE of the connecting rod and especially the piston varies considerably with each rotation. Once set in motion there is no friction loss but there is considerable energy variation? Such an energy variation violates the laws of thermodynamics but, according to Tom, energy cannot be dissipated in this system if the rods are perfectly rigid. How does this system operate then? There are no other components to transfer the energy to or to take it from to keep the overall energy constant. Therefore, we must conclude that such a system is impossible with perfectly rigid components (it violates the laws of thermodynamics).

But with "ordinary" materials the energy variation can be "buffered" through energy storage and release as the components stretch and compress. These "imperfect" materials allow the device to work without violating thermodynamic principles. The drawback to this buffering, of course, is such energy stretching and compressing ensures that energy must be lost with each revolution (due to hysterisis) and the system must eventually slow down and stop without ongoing outside energy input. One cannot expect to give the crankshaft a spin and expect it to go forever. Even with zero friction this system must eventually stop. This is no different than the unloaded rider, a system "everyone" accepts has energy losses.

Now, take the piston/crankshaft model and add a flywheel that will allow the variation in KE to be transferred to another element and back again. What is there about the flywheel that would change the basic energy variation of the piston/camshaft? Nothing. In fact, the forces on the connecting rod remain essentially constant so the losses will remain constant as long as the load is zero. This is no different than the unloaded MMF model. Even with an added flywheel both the piston/camshaft system and the MMF model must eventually come to a stop because neither can avoid real material hysterisis losses.

Tom refuses to accept this explanation as possible because he wants me to explain where the losses go if the materials are perfect. This cannot be explained because the machine can't exist without violating thermodynamic principles if it did exist. Therefore, it is silly to argue over the possibility. All we should be arguing over is the magnitude of the losses, not whether they exist.

--------------
Frank,
An original Ironman and the Inventor of PowerCranks
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Re: cadence [Frank Day] [ In reply to ]
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Frank,

In response to your response to my long post...

You say, "The energy can be completely transferred to the other elements of the bike only if the forces are tangential to the pedaling circle. (this is discussed more below) There is nothing to ensure this is the case. In fact, there is nothing to even suggest this is the case." The rest of your response is some variation of this false pronouncement.

Here is my answer. There is a component of the force that is tangential to the circle. There is a component that is normal to that (radial). The work in the tengential direction is the tangential componenet of the force times distance covered tangentially. The work done in the radial direction is the radial component of the force times the distance covered radially, which is zero. The radial component doesn't count at all. As you yourself said in post #190 of this thread, "Work is a scientific definition that requires a force through a distance. No distance, no work." While I disagree with the exact formulation, it is good enough for this case, and shows that you have a very inconsistent position.

Apart from your disagreement with what any high school physics text says about work calculation, I find little in your response. I await a true interaction.
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Re: cadence [Frank Day] [ In reply to ]
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"Aside from the piston being fixed and the 'piston rod' being a two part rod to accommodate the rotating crankshaft,"

That would be a connecting rod. The piston is not fixed and the relevence the rod consisting of two parts (actually there are more) escapes me. Of how many pieces are your thighs, calves and feet made, and yet we combine them for analytical purposes.


"there is another substantial difference between the piston system and the crank system. The piston system is being driven by a compressed gas. Therefore, there is no energy cost (assuming no gas leakage going around the seals) when there is no movement."

Once again you are way out of your depth and changing the subject by bringing the whole combustion cycle into it. Thermal transfer from hot gas to the block is a big issue; it is not an adiabatic process. It is better to agree on fundamentals in a simplified, ideal model first.


"Further, the amount of piston movement is related to the crankshaft angle. It makes no difference if the 'crankshaft forces' are not entirely tangential in that system because it cannot affect the efficiency or the transfer of energy. Whereas in the biological (muscle driven) system there is a cost to having a generated force without movement. Isometric contraction is not free so non-tangential forces affect efficiency."

This is changing the subject. If we can't agree on an ideal model, there is no point in starting to discuss the adjustments that have to be made to correspond to reality.


"Edit: also, is anyone saying that a friction free piston arrangement would go on 'forever' once set in motion. If there are energy losses from
rotation in that system, why can't we agree that they must be present in the more complicated MMF model?"

An ordinary engine cycle does work in generating heat and moving air around. If you eliminate that, then yes, it will go on forever. I think Giovanni was talking about a free-running piston-to-crank arrangement in a vacuum, consistent with the subject at hand.
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Re: cadence [Frank Day] [ In reply to ]
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...but, according to the first law of thermodynamics and Newton's first law of motion, energy cannot be dissipated in this system if the rods are perfectly rigid....

There...I fixed that for you ;-)

BTW Frank, your analogy of how to "change" the simple piston/crank mechanism to represent a pedaling leg is ALSO flawed. Replace the piston moving vertically in a cylinder with a mass located on a rigid lever with one end fixed (but free rotationally) and the other end connected to the "connecting rod" (i.e. the lower leg) with another freely rotating pivot. The mass moves nearly vertically (depending on the length of that upper lever)...think more of the mechanism that drives a crude oil pumping rig.

Keep trying...

http://bikeblather.blogspot.com/
Last edited by: Tom A.: Oct 26, 09 7:50
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Re: cadence [Frank Day] [ In reply to ]
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"Nobody here would deny, I think, that when rotating there is a substantial energy variation in the total system."

Why wouldn't we deny a variation?


"But with 'ordinary' materials the energy variation can be 'buffered' through energy storage and release as the components stretch and compress. These 'imperfect' materials allow the device to work without violating thermodynamic principles."

I don't think you have a concept of how little energy the average structural component stores when stressed.


"The drawback to this buffering, of course, is such energy stretching and compressing ensures that energy must be lost with each revolution (due to hysterisis) and the system must eventually slow down and stop without ongoing outside energy input."

But this is internal friction, and you said it was a frictionless system. And as a side note, not only do I think you have no concept of how little energy the average structural component stores when stressed, I think you have no concept of how small the proportion of that energy is that is lost due to hysteresis. While we're on the real-life track, I'm thinking for the kind of losses you're talking about, the leg would have to *distort* about 15 cm, even for 100% hysteresis loss. (My numbers have been off before -- maybe Tom A, Giovanni and Andrew Coggan could venture a guess.) I only mention this to help disabuse you of the notion that you have found something that several who have training and practical experience in this kind of analysis are missing; it is not really germane to the discussion at this point.


"One cannot expect to give the crankshaft a spin and expect it to go forever. Even with zero friction this system must eventually stop."

Why must one expect this?


"Tom refuses to accept this explanation as possible because he wants me to explain where the losses go if the materials are perfect. This cannot be explained because the machine can't exist without violating thermodynamic principles if it did exist. Therefore, it is silly to argue over the possibility. All we should be arguing over is the magnitude of the losses, not whether they exist."

No. Tom want you to demonstrate an understanding of basic physics before going on. If you can't agree on the simple case, you will never agree on the complex case. And I agree with him 100%. I doubt that it is so much a lack of capability on your part as a willingness to submit to the facts and to discipline yourself to treat one thing long enough and thoroughly enough to bring it to a conclusion.
Last edited by: pedaller: Oct 26, 09 8:19
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Re: cadence [pedaller] [ In reply to ]
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In Reply To:
"Nobody here would deny, I think, that when rotating there is a substantial energy variation in the total system."

Why wouldn't we deny a variation?
Huh? This is the internet. People say all sorts of silly things? So, while I would expect everyone to agree that there was a variation, I could not guarantee it.
In Reply To:
"But with 'ordinary' materials the energy variation can be 'buffered' through energy storage and release as the components stretch and compress. These 'imperfect' materials allow the device to work without violating thermodynamic principles."

I don't think you have a concept of how little energy the average structural component stores when stressed.
It doesn't matter how little or how much the actual numbers are, the entire variation must be stored in the material or the material must break.
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"The drawback to this buffering, of course, is such energy stretching and compressing ensures that energy must be lost with each revolution (due to hysterisis) and the system must eventually slow down and stop without ongoing outside energy input."

But this is internal friction, and you said it was a frictionless system. And as a side note, not only do I think you have no concept of how little energy the average structural component stores when stressed, I think you have no concept of how small the proportion of that energy is that is lost due to hysteresis. While we're on the real-life track, I'm thinking for the kind of losses you're talking about, the leg would have to *distort* about 15 cm, even for 100% hysteresis loss. (My numbers have been off before -- maybe Tom A, Giovanni and Andrew Coggan could venture a guess.) I only mention this to help disabuse you of the notion that you have found something that several who have training and practical experience in this kind of analysis are missing; it is not really germane to the discussion at this point.
Well, you are describing a perfect spring. As I said earlier the system would work if the structural components acted as perfect springs. However, that is not real world either. All materials will exhibit some hysterisis loss during stretching (or compression) and relaxing. Different materials will exhibit different losses in this regards (it is what sets apart those things we call a "spring" from those we don't). It really doesn't matter how large or small the losses are, they have to be there so the model cannot go on forever even if all the bearings and joints are friction free. As I said, we shouldn't be arguing as to whether there are or are not losses, there have to be. What we should be arguing is the size of the losses. Seems to me you have come around to this point of view.
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"One cannot expect to give the crankshaft a spin and expect it to go forever. Even with zero friction this system must eventually stop."

Why must one expect this?
Huh? Expect what?
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"Tom refuses to accept this explanation as possible because he wants me to explain where the losses go if the materials are perfect. This cannot be explained because the machine can't exist without violating thermodynamic principles if it did exist. Therefore, it is silly to argue over the possibility. All we should be arguing over is the magnitude of the losses, not whether they exist."

No. Tom want you to demonstrate an understanding of basic physics before going on. If you can't agree on the simple case, you will never agree on the complex case. And I agree with him 100%. I doubt that it is so much a lack of capability on your part as a willingness to submit to the facts and to discipline yourself to treat one thing long enough and thoroughly enough to bring it to a conclusion.
No, Tom is simply being recalcitrant. He should know by now that his requirement to explain the losses using a rigid model system is unrealistic and impossible. I put forth another similar model that we can all agree has losses but these losses also cannot be explained using a rigid model system. Yet, these losses exist in the real world. Rigid model systems can be a useful simplification for certain modeling scenarios. They are not useful for all modeling scenarios. Depends upon what you are looking for. If you are trying to figure out what losses there might be one cannot use a rigid, frictionless, model. He is not trying to hold me to an "understanding of basic physics" but he is, rather, trying to deny what is going on in the real world.

--------------
Frank,
An original Ironman and the Inventor of PowerCranks
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Re: cadence [Tom A.] [ In reply to ]
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...but, according to the first law of thermodynamics and Newton's first law of motion, energy cannot be dissipated in this system if the rods are perfectly rigid....

There...I fixed that for you ;-)

BTW Frank, your analogy of how to "change" the simple piston/crank mechanism to represent a pedaling leg is ALSO flawed. Replace the piston moving vertically in a cylinder with a mass located on a rigid lever with one end fixed (but free rotationally) and the other end connected to the "connecting rod" (i.e. the lower leg) with another freely rotating pivot. The mass moves nearly vertically (depending on the length of that upper lever)...think more of the mechanism that drives a crude oil pumping rig.

Keep trying...
Tom, beyond the first law, your rigid model also violates the second law of thermodynamics.

Anyhow, the purpose of the analogy was not to come up with a system that looks like the MMF but one that works similarly to the MMF that we can all agree has energy losses. Both have a rotational and reciprocating component as part of the whole. In both instances there will be an energy variation that must be accounted for without loss for the model to function as a perpetual motion machine. In both models it is impossible to account for the losses using a rigid model analysis. In both models it is impossible for them to become perpetual motion machines, even if we don't completely understand the science, simply because of the second law of thermodynamics. So, since we know the "perpetual motion" explanation for the MMF has to be wrong don't you think it is better for us to try to explain where the losses occur and how large they are rather than denying that they exist?

--------------
Frank,
An original Ironman and the Inventor of PowerCranks
Last edited by: Frank Day: Oct 26, 09 10:44
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Re: cadence [Frank Day] [ In reply to ]
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In Reply To:
In Reply To:
...but, according to the first law of thermodynamics and Newton's first law of motion, energy cannot be dissipated in this system if the rods are perfectly rigid....

There...I fixed that for you ;-)

BTW Frank, your analogy of how to "change" the simple piston/crank mechanism to represent a pedaling leg is ALSO flawed. Replace the piston moving vertically in a cylinder with a mass located on a rigid lever with one end fixed (but free rotationally) and the other end connected to the "connecting rod" (i.e. the lower leg) with another freely rotating pivot. The mass moves nearly vertically (depending on the length of that upper lever)...think more of the mechanism that drives a crude oil pumping rig.

Keep trying...
Tom, beyond the first law, your rigid model also violates the second law of thermodynamics.

Ummm...no. The entropy is not decreasing (which would violate the 2nd law), it's just not INCREASING, which is OK with the 2nd law for a system in equilibrium, which the idealized frictionless, rigid link model is a case.


In Reply To:
Anyhow, the purpose of the analogy was not to come up with a system that looks like the MMF but one that works similarly to the MMF that we can all agree has energy losses.

No...the purpose up to this point is to get you to realize that if we idealize the model so that there are no frictional losses and the links are rigid, the energy in the system is just "shifted around" within the system and stays constant (thereby satisfying both the 1st and 2nd laws of thermodynamics and also Newton's first law of motion).

YOU are the only one positing that there is somehow energy being "drained" from the system in that case...but yet you somehow can't identify how that is happening, and so in your mind that can ONLY mean that the frictionless, rigid model is somehow unsolvable, when in reality it is merely your cognitive dissonance that's getting in the way of your understanding of the basic concepts.[/reply] So, since we know the "perpetual motion" explanation for the MMF has to be wrong don't you think it is better for us to try to explain where the losses occur and how large they are rather than denying that they exist?[/reply]
Who is this "we" to which you are referring? It seems to me that it's you against the rational world on this one...

http://bikeblather.blogspot.com/
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Re: cadence [Tom A.] [ In reply to ]
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In Reply To:
In Reply To:
...but, according to the first law of thermodynamics and Newton's first law of motion, energy cannot be dissipated in this system if the rods are perfectly rigid....

There...I fixed that for you ;-)

BTW Frank, your analogy of how to "change" the simple piston/crank mechanism to represent a pedaling leg is ALSO flawed. Replace the piston moving vertically in a cylinder with a mass located on a rigid lever with one end fixed (but free rotationally) and the other end connected to the "connecting rod" (i.e. the lower leg) with another freely rotating pivot. The mass moves nearly vertically (depending on the length of that upper lever)...think more of the mechanism that drives a crude oil pumping rig.

Keep trying...
Tom, beyond the first law, your rigid model also violates the second law of thermodynamics.

Ummm...no. The entropy is not decreasing (which would violate the 2nd law), it's just not INCREASING, which is OK with the 2nd law for a system in equilibrium, which the idealized frictionless, rigid link model is a case.
Sorry, entropy not increasing, in this instance, violates the second law: "The entropy of an isolated system consisting of two regions of space, isolated from one another, each in thermodynamic equilibrium in itself, but not in equilibrium with each other, will, when the isolation that separates the two regions is broken, so that the two regions become able to exchange matter or energy, tend to increase over time, approaching a maximum value when the jointly communicating system reaches thermodynamic equilibrium."[/reply]
In Reply To:
Anyhow, the purpose of the analogy was not to come up with a system that looks like the MMF but one that works similarly to the MMF that we can all agree has energy losses.

No...the purpose up to this point is to get you to realize that if we idealize the model so that there are no frictional losses and the links are rigid, the energy in the system is just "shifted around" within the system and stays constant (thereby satisfying both the 1st and 2nd laws of thermodynamics and also Newton's first law of motion).[/reply] No, I think the purpose now is to get you to understand that this shifting of energy without increasing entropy violates the second law of thermodynamics.
In Reply To:

YOU are the only one positing that there is somehow energy being "drained" from the system in that case...but yet you somehow can't identify how that is happening, and so in your mind that can ONLY mean that the frictionless, rigid model is somehow unsolvable, when in reality it is merely your cognitive dissonance that's getting in the way of your understanding of the basic concepts.
So, since we know the "perpetual motion" explanation for the MMF has to be wrong don't you think it is better for us to try to explain where the losses occur and how large they are rather than denying that they exist?[/reply]
Who is this "we" to which you are referring? It seems to me that it's you against the rational world on this one...[/reply] We, means anyone who understands the laws of thermodynamics. It simply is not possible.

edit: and to illustrate that it does not require "friction" in the links between the two components for this entropy increase (energy loss) to occur all one need do is look at the earth and the moon. The connection is purely gravitational yet the total energy of the system is slowly falling as the two bodies interact.

--------------
Frank,
An original Ironman and the Inventor of PowerCranks
Last edited by: Frank Day: Oct 26, 09 11:09
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Re: cadence [Frank Day] [ In reply to ]
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We, means anyone who understands the laws of thermodynamics.

I see. So IOW, everyone posting to this thread but you.
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Re: cadence [Andrew Coggan] [ In reply to ]
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We, means anyone who understands the laws of thermodynamics.

I see. So IOW, everyone posting to this thread but you.
Explain to me how the MMF model (the one that doesn't lose any energy) does not violate the second law of thermodynamics. Once you have done that satisfactorily I will go away. :-) Looking forward to this explanation very much.

--------------
Frank,
An original Ironman and the Inventor of PowerCranks
Quote Reply
Re: cadence [Frank Day] [ In reply to ]
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In Reply To:
In Reply To:
We, means anyone who understands the laws of thermodynamics.

I see. So IOW, everyone posting to this thread but you.
Explain to me how the MMF model (the one that doesn't lose any energy) does not violate the second law of thermodynamics. Once you have done that satisfactorily I will go away. :-) Looking forward to this explanation very much.

That's easy: because it is hypothetical pedagological construct in which is assumed a priori that the 2nd law of thermodynamics does not apply.

Good bye. :-)
Quote Reply
Re: cadence [Frank Day] [ In reply to ]
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Sorry, entropy not increasing, in this instance, violates the second law: "The entropy of an isolated system consisting of two regions of space, isolated from one another, each in thermodynamic equilibrium in itself, but not in equilibrium with each other, will, when the isolation that separates the two regions is broken, so that the two regions become able to exchange matter or energy, tend to increase over time, approaching a maximum value when the jointly communicating system reaches thermodynamic equilibrium."

What part of "equilibrium" don't you understand?



In Reply To:
No, I think the purpose now is to get you to understand that this shifting of energy without increasing entropy violates the second law of thermodynamics.

Again...what part of "equilibrium" don't you understand?

Where's that supposed "energy sink" Frank? Where is it?? Are you saying that the transference of KE to PE, or the transference of KE of one element to the KE of another element in a simplified model assuming zero friction and rigid links is impossible? How does one come up with the classic equations describing the period of a pendulum?? How about that model of a dual pendulum that was described earlier in this thread? Neither of those cases are solvable in your world? Interesting...



In Reply To:
In Reply To:

Who is this "we" to which you are referring? It seems to me that it's you against the rational world on this one...
We, means anyone who understands the laws of thermodynamics. It simply is not possible.

You obviously vastly overestimate your personal level of understanding...

http://bikeblather.blogspot.com/
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Re: cadence [Andrew Coggan] [ In reply to ]
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We, means anyone who understands the laws of thermodynamics.

I see. So IOW, everyone posting to this thread but you.
Explain to me how the MMF model (the one that doesn't lose any energy) does not violate the second law of thermodynamics. Once you have done that satisfactorily I will go away. :-) Looking forward to this explanation very much.

That's easy: because it is hypothetical pedagological construct in which is assumed a priori that the 2nd law of thermodynamics does not apply.

Good bye. :-)
So, your comment in post #128 in this thread in which you said: " Please tell me that you simply overlooked his claim #1!" to Tom A., when he said he agreed with me when I said in part: "1. It will take less energy to make them go around one revolution as the up and down excursion of the thigh is less by twice the crank length difference. . . ." is based upon your analysis of a model upon which "is is assumed a priori that the 2nd law of thermodynamics does not apply"?

Is this correct?


--------------
Frank,
An original Ironman and the Inventor of PowerCranks
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Re: cadence [Tom A.] [ In reply to ]
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In Reply To:

Sorry, entropy not increasing, in this instance, violates the second law: "The entropy of an isolated system consisting of two regions of space, isolated from one another, each in thermodynamic equilibrium in itself, but not in equilibrium with each other, will, when the isolation that separates the two regions is broken, so that the two regions become able to exchange matter or energy, tend to increase over time, approaching a maximum value when the jointly communicating system reaches thermodynamic equilibrium."

What part of "equilibrium" don't you understand?
Perhaps you should explain how I am misinterpreting equilibrium in this instance. I think by definition any system which requires energy transfer between the elements is not in equilibrium.[/reply]

In Reply To:
No, I think the purpose now is to get you to understand that this shifting of energy without increasing entropy violates the second law of thermodynamics.

Again...what part of "equilibrium" don't you understand?[/reply] I repeat, perhaps you should explain how I am misinterpreting equilibrium in this instance. I think by definition any system which requires energy transfer between the elements is not in equilibrium.[/reply]

Where's that supposed "energy sink" Frank? Where is it?? Are you saying that the transference of KE to PE, or the transference of KE of one element to the KE of another element in a simplified model assuming zero friction and rigid links is impossible? How does one come up with the classic equations describing the period of a pendulum?? How about that model of a dual pendulum that was described earlier in this thread? Neither of those cases are solvable in your world? Interesting...[/reply] Well, I have already said that in this instance it is material hysterisis, the same way energy is being lost in the earth/moon system. Even if I am wrong and we do not understand how the energy is lost from the system it is not necessary for us to be able to explain it since the second law of thermodynamics forces the system to lose energy. To say otherwise requires the laws of thermodynamics to no longer apply. As someone said to me earlier, prove that and a nobel prize is awaiting you. But, the burden is on you, not me.[/reply]
In Reply To:
In Reply To:

Who is this "we" to which you are referring? It seems to me that it's you against the rational world on this one...
We, means anyone who understands the laws of thermodynamics. It simply is not possible.

You obviously vastly overestimate your personal level of understanding...[/reply] Or, you are doing the same.

--------------
Frank,
An original Ironman and the Inventor of PowerCranks
Quote Reply
Re: cadence [Frank Day] [ In reply to ]
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In Reply To:
In Reply To:
In Reply To:
In Reply To:
We, means anyone who understands the laws of thermodynamics.

I see. So IOW, everyone posting to this thread but you.
Explain to me how the MMF model (the one that doesn't lose any energy) does not violate the second law of thermodynamics. Once you have done that satisfactorily I will go away. :-) Looking forward to this explanation very much.

That's easy: because it is hypothetical pedagological construct in which is assumed a priori that the 2nd law of thermodynamics does not apply.

Good bye. :-)
So, your comment in post #128 in this thread in which you said: " Please tell me that you simply overlooked his claim #1!" to Tom A., when he said he agreed with me when I said in part: "1. It will take less energy to make them go around one revolution as the up and down excursion of the thigh is less by twice the crank length difference. . . ." is based upon your analysis of a model upon which "is is assumed a priori that the 2nd law of thermodynamics does not apply"?

Is this correct?
Yes. That is, your assertion that reducing one's cadence automatically results in less energy "lost" to physical (versus physiological) processes is incorrect, as no such losses exist, at least as you envision them.
Quote Reply
Re: cadence [Andrew Coggan] [ In reply to ]
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In Reply To:
In Reply To:
In Reply To:
In Reply To:
In Reply To:
In Reply To:
We, means anyone who understands the laws of thermodynamics.

I see. So IOW, everyone posting to this thread but you.
Explain to me how the MMF model (the one that doesn't lose any energy) does not violate the second law of thermodynamics. Once you have done that satisfactorily I will go away. :-) Looking forward to this explanation very much.

That's easy: because it is hypothetical pedagological construct in which is assumed a priori that the 2nd law of thermodynamics does not apply.

Good bye. :-)
So, your comment in post #128 in this thread in which you said: " Please tell me that you simply overlooked his claim #1!" to Tom A., when he said he agreed with me when I said in part: "1. It will take less energy to make them go around one revolution as the up and down excursion of the thigh is less by twice the crank length difference. . . ." is based upon your analysis of a model upon which "is is assumed a priori that the 2nd law of thermodynamics does not apply"?

Is this correct?
Yes. That is, your assertion that reducing one's cadence automatically results in less energy "lost" to physical (versus physiological) processes is incorrect, as no such losses exist, at least as you envision them.
Are you saying that no such losses exist or that they only don't exist as I envision them? If you agree that they exist but they don't exist as I envision them perhaps you could enlighten all of us how they do exist.

--------------
Frank,
An original Ironman and the Inventor of PowerCranks
Quote Reply
Re: cadence [Frank Day] [ In reply to ]
Quote | Reply
In Reply To:
In Reply To:
In Reply To:
In Reply To:
In Reply To:
In Reply To:
In Reply To:
We, means anyone who understands the laws of thermodynamics.

I see. So IOW, everyone posting to this thread but you.
Explain to me how the MMF model (the one that doesn't lose any energy) does not violate the second law of thermodynamics. Once you have done that satisfactorily I will go away. :-) Looking forward to this explanation very much.

That's easy: because it is hypothetical pedagological construct in which is assumed a priori that the 2nd law of thermodynamics does not apply.

Good bye. :-)
So, your comment in post #128 in this thread in which you said: " Please tell me that you simply overlooked his claim #1!" to Tom A., when he said he agreed with me when I said in part: "1. It will take less energy to make them go around one revolution as the up and down excursion of the thigh is less by twice the crank length difference. . . ." is based upon your analysis of a model upon which "is is assumed a priori that the 2nd law of thermodynamics does not apply"?

Is this correct?
Yes. That is, your assertion that reducing one's cadence automatically results in less energy "lost" to physical (versus physiological) processes is incorrect, as no such losses exist, at least as you envision them.
Are you saying that no such losses exist or that they only don't exist as I envision them? If you agree that they exist but they don't exist as I envision them perhaps you could enlighten all of us how they do exist.

Your contention is that cycling efficiency is <<100% because of major energy losses "downstream" of when the legs are set in motion, and that this has a physical basis that allows you accurately quantify the effects of cadence. In reality, however, such losses (which are due to friction in joints, hysteresis in limbs, etc.) are very small (i.e., >90% of the energy "invested" in the legs is recovered at the pedal), and do not vary in such a predictable manner with cadence as you envision. In fact, if you were pedaling in a complete vacuum with infinitely-stiff limbs and completely friction-free joints (and a locked ankle), there would no "downstream" energy losses at all, regardless of the cadence. If there were, it would represent a violation of the 1st Law of Thermodynamics (which is why Tom A. is simply the latest of many who for years have been asking you "where does the energy go, Frank?").
Last edited by: Andrew Coggan: Oct 26, 09 13:22
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