RangerGress wrote:
JSA wrote:
RangerGress wrote:
SCOTUS pulled this idea that "the Amendments to the Federal Constitution apply to the states", out of their butt. I would argue that the SCOTUS decision on this was at odds with what the Founding Fathers and state legislatures wanted. Therefore SCOTUS made the call based not on the Constitution, but on what SCOTUS wanted, which has long been their MO. My state churches example in this thread was, I think, a pretty good one that shows how the Amendments were not, at the time, perceived to apply to the states.
Huh? The Amendments are what grant individual rights. The original intent of the Constitution was three-fold: (1) specify the form of government, (2) protect state rights, and (3) protect individual rights. Individual rights cannot be protected if the Amendments do not apply to the state. Otherwise, a state would be free to trample those individual rights, like many southern states tried to do during the Civil Rights movement.
The Amendments don't "grant" individual rights. The framers and the state legislatures would have said that the rights come from God and are inalienable.
You are thinking of the Declaration of Independence, not the Constitution. The Constitution absolutely establishes and protects individual right. God did not grant the right to bear arms.
"We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness. — That to secure these rights, Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed, — That whenever any Form of Government becomes destructive of these ends, it is the Right of the People to alter or to abolish it, and to institute new Government, laying its foundation on such principles and organizing its powers in such form, as to them shall seem most likely to effect their Safety and Happiness."
RangerGress wrote:
The Amendments "restrain" the feds from restricting these rights. Remember that many thought that the Amendments were unnecessary. It shouldn't be necessary, so their argument went, to spell out these restrictions to federal powers because the Constitution that we just wrote does not give the feds the rights to create those restrictions in the first place.
That's not all they do. They identify the Rights and say they cannot be infringed. They are specific in that way. They do not just say, "Government shall not infringe upon any individual rights." They specifically identify the Right. See, e.g., the 4th:
"The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized."
Right there - the Right to be secure in person, home, etc. is established by the 4th.
RangerGress wrote:
For those here that are still using the "but the Amendments apply to the state" argument, pls go back and reread how the framers and state legislatures interpreted the 1st Amendment. Many of the states had churches. They interpreted "Shall make no law respecting the establishment of a religion" as protecting their state religions from federal meddling. What could possibly make it more clear that they did not perceive the "unnecessary" Amendments as restricting the states.
I'm still not sure what you are saying here. The Amendments apply to the state. Just look at the 4th. How can you possibly claim the 4th Amendment does not apply to the states?
Look at the 12th Amendment - it specifically directs the states how to conduct federal elections.
Look at the 14th - "No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction[/url] the equal protection of the laws."
Look at the 15th - "The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged[/url] by the United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude."
Need I go on?
RangerGress wrote:
Sure, the states were doing things that we look back now at with dismay. Slavery and racial discrimination being prob top of the list. But when discussing the philosophical underpinnings of our laws, it just muddies the water to get into "good" and "bad".
"But if the states were free to discriminate, some states would and that would be bad". Yes, it would. They'd have gotten with the program eventually tho. It was our culture, acting thru the government, that stopped that shit, not the government acting thru us. Freedom means the freedom to be a shithead. But if a person truly wants freedom, they're just going to have to accept that some will use that freedom to do things they disagree with. Like be a racist, buy a gas guzzler, and whatever.
You are joking, right? You think the Civil Rights Movement would have changed the culture of the US without the passage of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
You think we would have had soldiers of color rise to the level of Chief of Staff if the Army hadn't forced integration?
If there are no dogs in Heaven, then when I die I want to go where they went. - Will Rogers
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