I agree with your points on explicit and reasonable knowledge, but how does one prove it in this case? Was the eligibility (or lack thereof) clearly delineated in the contracts, or available in the public sphere? I ask this rhetorically, because I don't know.
If there was a clear and reasonable communication related to (what I assume was) an unconventional compensation practice, then there's probably a case for culpability. Otherwise, I don't see the average enlisted person being on the hook for a superior's poor decision.
ETA: Now seeing that slowguy and JSA have just addressed this.
"The right to party is a battle we have fought, but we'll surrender and go Amish... NOT!" -Wayne Campbell
If there was a clear and reasonable communication related to (what I assume was) an unconventional compensation practice, then there's probably a case for culpability. Otherwise, I don't see the average enlisted person being on the hook for a superior's poor decision.
ETA: Now seeing that slowguy and JSA have just addressed this.
"The right to party is a battle we have fought, but we'll surrender and go Amish... NOT!" -Wayne Campbell