This may be pedantic (and IANAL), but the only proper I care about is whether the IP usage rights is properly acquired. When one pays for coverage nominally intended for another locale, a properly executed first sale has indeed taken place, as evidenced by the fact that the seller accepting payment (entities like ES could always reject payment, as they have done to many VPN users). U.S. copyright jurisprudence recognizes the first sale as an affirmative defense against allegations of copyright infringement, with the legal precedence established when the Supreme Court decided that someone sued for selling properly-acquired overseas edition books in the U.S. did not in fact commit infringement on the basis of having properly acquired those books overseas.