Hi folks -
So about 6 weeks ago, I woke up one morning with pain on the side of my foot towards the heel (lateral posterior calcaneus), sort in in the center of the flat part there. Here’s the overview:
Pain worse in morning directly out of bedPain mostly at heel-lift, just as heel lifts, or on inversion under loadNo swelling or discolorationNo pain on impact, percussionCalf stretching helps a lot with symptomsRiding and swimming seem fine.
I initially ran short on this a few times, and it got significantly worse. Felt like a sprain with pain epicenter about 2cm below the malleolus, but sore all over the side of the calcaneus back towards the heel - but generally hard to localize the pain. Took several weeks off running, pretty much to pain free. Two mile run, no dice. After more time off, it’ll feel much better but even too much walking will result in soreness the next AM.
So I bit the bullet and got an MRI last week (checking peroneals and sfx). Result? 4.5cm split longitudinal tear. Seems to have progressed since another MRI in the area (totally different issue on medial side) in 2010.
Moderately large peroneal tendon sheath effusion is present, and the effusion extends into the plantar midfoot. The PBT forms a longitudinal split at the retroareolar groove. The 2 components rejoin distale to the peroneal tubercle…There is prominent tenosynovitis
I’ve rolled that ankle many times (not recently), and my peroneals subluxate a bit on dorsiflexion. But, my PBT doesn’t hurt. At all. Not on palpation, not on resistance. The pain I get running is distal/posterior to that area by a cm or more (hard to hold the ruler there when running ;)).
Upon talking with the doc about this (sports med), she suggested that the pain is coming from my lower back, given the lack of symptoms. I’ve got a messy L5/S1 bulge on that side, many years old, but it been behaving lately. I’m skeptical of this because the pain I have acts like a real injury with the morning being worse and it getting better if I lay off it, but not really better.
How likely is this? Could that effusion be causing symptoms away from the injury site? How is it I’m asymptomatic with that big of a tear?
I’m a little stumped as to how to tackle this at this point. The MRI doesn’t show any thing else.